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RE: [dow1-2tf] Last Call on Final Draft of Issues 1 and 2

  • To: <Jeff.Neuman@xxxxxxxxxx>, <marc@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Subject: RE: [dow1-2tf] Last Call on Final Draft of Issues 1 and 2
  • From: "Milton Mueller" <Mueller@xxxxxxx>
  • Date: Wed, 24 Nov 2004 13:49:05 -0500
  • Cc: <dow1-2tf@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Sender: owner-dow1-2tf@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx

That's not quite true, Jeff. The federal courts are part of the federal
government, which pays their bills, appoints or elects judges, etc. Same
goes for the state and local agencies. The point Marc is raising is that
when registrars are subject to litigation does this exception procedure
kick in. The answer is, obviously, yes. 

>>> "Neuman, Jeff" <Jeff.Neuman@xxxxxxxxxx> 11/23/2004 9:25:14 PM >>>
No, even in the US, we do not consider the "courts" as a "government
agency." :) 

Is there a place in the document that you are looking at?


-----Original Message-----
From: Marc Schneiders [mailto:marc@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx] 
Sent: Tuesday, November 23, 2004 6:35 PM
To: Neuman, Jeff
Cc: dow1-2tf@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx 
Subject: Re: [dow1-2tf] Last Call on Final Draft of Issues 1 and 2

Stupid question from a non-native English speaking European about
the meaning of a word in the text on conflicts with national privacy

Is a 'court of law' a 'government agency'?

I would never, ever, include courts under government agencies. And
judges in my country would hang me if I did (and we still had capital
punishment, which we fortunately do not). But if this is normal in US
English, I have no problems. So just for clarification. Thanks.

Marc Schneiders

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